NURSING OFFICER EXAM MCQs - SERIES - 1 (AIIMS, Kerala PSC,DME, DHS, RRB, ESIC, NIMHANS, DSSB, CHO, JIPMER, PGI, NHM)
NURSING OFFICER EXAM MCQs
SERIES - 1
1. Which of the following statement is not applicable for a patient on oral anticoagulant therapy?
A. The the medicine daily at 5pm
B. If any hematuria present consult the doctor immediately
C. Always count the pulse rate before taking medicine
D. The dosage of medicine is adjusted according to PT-INR report
The correct answer is: C. Always count the pulse rate before taking medicine
Explanation: Oral anticoagulant therapy, such as warfarin, is closely monitored through regular PT-INR (Prothrombin Time-International Normalized Ratio) reports. This helps adjust the dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation.
The other options are applicable:
A. Taking the medicine daily at the same time (e.g., 5 pm) helps maintain consistent anticoagulation levels.
B. If hematuria (blood in urine) is present, consulting the doctor immediately is crucial, as it may indicate a bleeding complication related to anticoagulant therapy.
C is not applicable because pulse rate monitoring is not directly related to oral anticoagulant therapy. However, it's essential for patients on certain medications, like beta-blockers or anti-arrhythmics.
2. Coronary angioplasty is a procedure to ..............?
A. Assess the aorta and major vessels
B. Assess the coronary arteries
C. Open the narrowed arteries
D. Occlude the abnormal connections of the artery
The correct answer is: C. Open the narrowed arteries
Explanation: Coronary angioplasty, also known as percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), is a minimally invasive procedure that: Uses a catheter to insert a small balloon into the narrowed coronary artery. Inflates the balloon to compress the plaque and stretch the artery, improving blood flow. Often involves the placement of a stent to keep the artery open.
The other options are not accurate:
A. Assessing the aorta and major vessels is typically done through other imaging tests, such as CT or MRI angiography.
B. Assessing the coronary arteries is done through coronary angiography, which is often performed in conjunction with angioplasty.
D. Occluding abnormal connections of the artery is a different procedure, such as embolization or coil placement, used to treat conditions like arteriovenous malformations (AVMs).
3. The period of retention for medicolegal record is..............?
A. 10 Years
B.20 years
C. Permanently
D. Till the legal settlement
The correct answer is C. Permanently
Explanation: Medicolegal records are typically retained permanently due to their sensitive and potentially litigious nature. These records may be required for: Ongoing medical care and treatment, Insurance claims and settlements, Medical malpractice lawsuits, Regulatory and compliance purposes
Retaining medicolegal records permanently ensures that they are available for future reference, even if the patient is no longer receiving care.
The other options are not correct:
A. 10 years: This is a common retention period for some medical records, but not for medicolegal records.
B. 20 years: This may be a retention period for some medical records, but it is not sufficient for medicolegal records.
D. Till legal settlement: While medicolegal records may be required for legal settlements, retaining them only until the settlement is reached may not be sufficient, as they may still be required for future reference.
4. Triage means ............
A. Planning
B. Prioritizing
C. Assessing
D. evaluating
The correct answer is: B. Prioritizing
Explanation: Triage is a process used in medical and emergency situations to: Quickly assess the severity of patients' conditions, Prioritize their treatment based on the urgency and severity of their needs. The goal of triage is to allocate limited medical resources effectively, ensuring that the most critically ill or injured patients receive immediate attention.
The other options are not accurate:
A. Planning: While planning is an important aspect of emergency response, it is not the primary meaning of triage.
C. Assessing: Assessing is a part of the triage process, but it is not the primary definition.
D. Evaluating: Evaluating is also a part of the triage process, but it is not the primary definition.
In essence, triage is about prioritizing patients' treatment based on their medical needs.
5. Rescuer should initiate ............in order
A. ABC
B. CAB
C. BCA
D. CBA
The correct answer is: B. CAB
Explanation :In medical emergencies, rescuer should initiate the CAB sequence:
1. C - Circulation: Check for pulse and initiate chest compressions (if necessary) to maintain blood circulation.
2. A - Airway: Open the airway by tilting the head and lifting the chin.
3. B - Breathing: Check for breathing and provide rescue breaths (if necessary).
The CAB sequence is the recommended approach by the American Heart Association (AHA) and other medical organizations.
The other options are not correct:
A. ABC: This sequence was previously recommended, but it has been updated to CAB to prioritize circulation.
C. BCA: This sequence is not a recognized or recommended approach.
D. CBA: This sequence is also not a recognized or recommended approach.
6. The route of transmission of MRSA is............?
A. Blood transfusion
B. Reuse of disposable items
C. Hand carriage
D. sharing instruments
The correct answer is: C. Hand carriage
Explanation: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is typically transmitted through: Hand carriage: MRSA can colonize on the hands of healthcare workers, allowing them to transfer the bacteria to patients, equipment, and surfaces. Direct contact: Physical contact with an infected person or contaminated surfaces can also spread MRSA.
The other options are not the primary routes of transmission:
A. Blood transfusion: MRSA is not typically transmitted through blood transfusions, as the bacteria are not usually present in the bloodstream.
B. Reuse of disposable items: While reusing disposable items can increase the risk of transmission, it is not the primary route.
D. Sharing instruments: Sharing instruments can also increase the risk of transmission, but proper sterilization and disinfection can minimize this risk.
Proper hand hygiene, using personal protective equipment (PPE), and following infection control protocols can help prevent the spread of MRSA.
7. The storage temperature of whole blood is ...........?
A. 6-10*c
B. 2-6*c
C. 10-15*c
D. <2*c
The correct answer is B. 2-6°C.
Explanation: Whole blood is typically stored in a refrigerator at a temperature between 2°C and 6°C to slow down the metabolic processes and preserve the blood cells, particularly the red blood cells. This temperature range helps to maintain the viability and function of the blood cells during storage.
8. Recommended time to administer antibiotic prophylaxis prior to surgery
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 30 minutes to 1 hour
D. 24 hours
The correct answer is C. 30 minutes to 1 hour.
Explanation: The recommended time to administer antibiotic prophylaxis prior to surgery is typically within 30 minutes to 1 hour before the surgical incision. This timing allows the antibiotic to reach adequate tissue concentrations at the time of the incision, which helps to prevent surgical site infections. Administering antibiotics too far in advance (e.g., 6-24 hours) or too close to the incision may reduce their effectiveness.
9. TB patients should be nursed in an isolation room with............?
A. Positive pressure ventilation
B.negative pressure ventilation
C. Centralized air condition
D. None of the above
The correct answer is B. Negative pressure ventilation.
Explanations: TB patients should be nursed in an isolation room with negative pressure ventilation to prevent the spread of tuberculosis to others. Negative pressure ventilation means that the air pressure in the room is lower than the surrounding areas, so that if there are any gaps in the room, air will flow into the room rather than out of it, reducing the risk of transmitting TB bacteria to others. This is a key infection control measure to prevent the spread of TB.
10. MRSA nasal carriers should be treated with ..........?
A. Povidone iodine
B. 1% mupirocin
C. Silver sulphadiazine
D.Enzamycin
The correct answer is B. 1% mupirocin.
Explanation: Mupirocin is a topical antibiotic that is effective against MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus). Nasal carriers of MRSA can be treated with 1% mupirocin ointment applied to the nostrils three times a day for 5-7 days to eradicate the bacteria. This treatment can help reduce the risk of transmission and infection.
11. Decerebrate positioning can be described as.....................?
A. Abduction of arms at the level of shoulder
B. Rigid extension and pronation of arms and legs
C. Flaccid paralysis of all extremities
D. Abnorma;l flexion of the upper extremities
The correct answer is B. Rigid extension and pronation of arms and legs.
Explanation : Decerebrate positioning, also known as decerebrate posturing, is a type of abnormal posturing that can occur in patients with severe brain damage or injury. It is characterized by:
- Rigid extension and pronation of the arms and legs
- Extension of the back and neck
- Rotation of the head to one side
This type of posturing indicates a severe level of brain damage and is often associated with a poor prognosis.
12. Hyperventilation can lead to ........................?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
The correct answer is A. Respiratory alkalosis.
Explanation : Hyperventilation is the act of breathing more rapidly or deeply than normal. When a person hyperventilates, they exhale more carbon dioxide (CO2) than usual. As CO2 levels decrease, the pH of the blood increases, leading to a condition known as respiratory alkalosis.
Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by: Increased pH (above 7.45), Decreased CO2 levels (below 35 mmHg), Increased bicarbonate (HCO3-) levels
This can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, lightheadedness, and tingling sensations in the fingers and toes.
13. The most effective precaution for the prevention of myasthenic and cholinergic crisis is.........
A. To do all works in the day
B. Doing muscle strengthening exercise
C. Taking medications on time
D. Eating large and well balanced meals
The correct answer is C. Taking medications on time.
Explanation: Myasthenic crisis and cholinergic crisis are two potential complications of myasthenia gravis, a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the nerve-muscle connection.
Myasthenic crisis is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe muscle weakness, respiratory failure, and other symptoms. Cholinergic crisis is a condition caused by excessive levels of acetylcholine, which can lead to muscle weakness, paralysis, and respiratory failure.
Taking medications on time is the most effective precaution for preventing these crises. This includes:
Taking anticholinesterase medications, such as pyridostigmine, as prescribed to manage muscle weakness
Adhering to a regular medication schedule to maintain stable medication levels
Monitoring medication levels and adjusting the dosage as needed to prevent overdose or underdose
By taking medications on time, individuals with myasthenia gravis can reduce the risk of developing myasthenic or cholinergic crisis.
14. The central cardiac control region is the ..........of the brain ?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Cerebellum
D. pons
The correct answer is B. Medulla oblongata.
Explanation: The medulla oblongata is the lowest part of the brainstem and is responsible for controlling many of the body's automatic functions, including:
- Heart rate and blood pressure
- Breathing and respiration
- Swallowing and digestion
- Vomiting and coughing
The medulla oblongata contains the cardiac control center, which regulates heart rate and blood pressure through the autonomic nervous system. This center receives input from various sensors and sends signals to the heart and blood vessels to adjust heart rate and blood pressure as needed.
The other options are not correct because:
- Hypothalamus: regulates body temperature, hunger, thirst, and other functions, but not directly involved in cardiac control.
- Cerebellum: involved in motor coordination and balance, but not directly involved in cardiac control.
- Pons: involved in sleep, arousal, and other functions, but not directly involved in cardiac control.
15. An unresponsive and pulseless patient is brought to the emergency room after being in a car accident and neck injury suspected. The patient's airway is opened by which method?
A. Head tilt/ chin lift
B. Keeping the patient flat and grasping the tongue
C. Jaw thrust maneuver
D. Lift the head up and place on two pillows and attempt to ventilate
The correct answer is C. Jaw thrust maneuver.
Explanation: When a patient has a suspected neck injury, it's essential to maintain cervical spine immobilization to prevent further injury. The jaw thrust maneuver is the recommended method to open the airway in this situation.
The jaw thrust maneuver involves:
- Placing your fingers behind the angles of the patient's jaw and gently lifting the jaw upwards and forwards
- This helps to open the airway without extending the neck
The other options are not correct because:
- A. Head tilt/chin lift: This method involves tilting the head back and lifting the chin, which can exacerbate a neck injury.
- B. Keeping the patient flat and grasping the tongue: This method is not effective in opening the airway and can also cause injury to the tongue or oral cavity.
- D. Lift the head up and place on two pillows and attempt to ventilate: This method can also exacerbate a neck injury and is not a recommended technique for opening the airway.
16. The purpose of water in the water seal chamber of a chest drainage system is to ..............?
A. Decrease the danger of sudden change of pressure within the tube
B. Facilitate emptying of bloody drainage from the chest
C. Prevent the entrance of air in to the plural cavity
D. Foster removal of chest secretion
The correct answer is C. Prevent the entrance of air into the pleural cavity.
The water seal chamber in a chest drainage system is designed to:
- Prevent air from entering the pleural cavity
- Allow air and fluid to escape from the pleural cavity
- Provide a safe and controlled environment for drainage
The water seal acts as a one-way valve, allowing air and fluid to escape from the pleural cavity while preventing air from entering. This helps to:
Prevent pneumothorax (collapsed lung), Maintain negative pressure in the pleural cavity, Facilitate lung re-expansion
The other options are not correct because:
A. Decreasing the danger of sudden change of pressure within the tube is not the primary purpose of the water seal chamber.
B. Facilitating emptying of bloody drainage from the chest is a function of the drainage tube, not the water seal chamber.
D. Fostering removal of chest secretion is a function of the drainage system as a whole, not specifically the water seal chamber.
17. What is the commonest cause of cardio pulmonary arrest in children?
A. Hypoxia
B. Arrhythmias
C. Acute pulmonary thrombo embolism
D. myocarditis
The correct answer is A. Hypoxia.
Explanation: In children, the most common cause of cardiopulmonary arrest (CPA) is hypoxia, which is a lack of sufficient oxygen to the body's tissues. This can occur due to various reasons such as:
- Respiratory problems (e.g., asthma, pneumonia, bronchiolitis)
- Airway obstruction (e.g., foreign body, anaphylaxis)
- Cardiac problems (e.g., congenital heart disease, cardiac arrhythmias)
- Trauma or injury
Hypoxia can lead to cardiac arrest, as the heart is highly sensitive to oxygen level
18. The important step in the prevention of ventilator associated pneumonia
A. Intermittent endotracheal suctioning
B. strict hand hygiene and appropriate use of gloves
C. Antibiotic usage
D. Changing ventilator tubing 6th hourly
The correct answer is B. Strict hand hygiene and appropriate use of gloves.
Explanation: Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) is a type of lung infection that occurs in patients who are on mechanical ventilation. To prevent VAP, it's essential to follow proper infection control measures, and strict hand hygiene is a crucial step.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend the following measures to prevent VAP:
- Hand hygiene: Healthcare workers should wash their hands with soap and water or use an alcohol-based hand rub before and after interacting with the patient or their surroundings.
- Glove use: Healthcare workers should wear gloves when interacting with the patient or their surroundings, especially when handling respiratory secretions or equipment.
The other options are not the most important step in preventing VAP:
- A. Intermittent endotracheal suctioning: While suctioning is essential for removing respiratory secretions, it's not the most critical step in preventing VAP.
- C. Antibiotic usage: Antibiotics should be used judiciously and only when necessary, as overuse can contribute to antibiotic resistance.
- D. Changing ventilator tubing 6th hourly: While regular changes of ventilator tubing may help reduce the risk of VAP, it's not the most critical step, and the frequency of changes may vary depending on the patient's condition and hospital policies.
19. If a child develops cyanosis early during tonic clonic seizure it is more appropriate for the nurse to..................................?
A. Insert an airway
B. Administer o2 mask
C. Observe without intervening
D. Use a padded tongue blade
The correct answer is C. Observe without intervening.
Explanation: Cyanosis during a tonic-clonic seizure can be a normal response due to the intense muscle contractions, which can lead to transient respiratory compromise. In most cases, the cyanosis resolves on its own once the seizure ends.
The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that during a seizure, the nurse should:
- Protect the child from injury
- Turn the child onto their side to prevent aspiration
- Clear the airway of any secretions or debris
- Observe the child's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) without intervening unless there is evidence of respiratory distress or failure.
The other options are not the most appropriate response:
- A. Inserting an airway may not be necessary unless the child shows signs of respiratory distress or failure.
- B. Administering oxygen via a mask may not be necessary unless the child shows signs of hypoxia or respiratory distress.
- D. Using a padded tongue blade is not recommended, as it can cause more harm than good and is not an evidence-based practice.
It's essential to remember that during a seizure, the priority is to protect the child from injury and ensure their airway is clear. Unless there are signs of respiratory distress or failure, it's best to observe the child without intervening.
20. Grapevine is a term relating to.........................?
A. Informal communication
B. Formal communication
C. Written communication
D. Oral communication
The correct answer is A. Informal communication.
Explanation: The term "grapevine" refers to the informal communication network within an organization. It is a channel of communication that is not officially sanctioned or recognized by the organization, but it exists nonetheless.
The grapevine can spread information, rumors, and gossip quickly throughout the organization, often bypassing formal communication channels. It can be influenced by personal relationships, social networks, and cultural norms within the organization.
The grapevine can have both positive and negative effects on an organization. On the one hand, it can facilitate communication and build relationships among employees. On the other hand, it can spread misinformation, create rumors, and undermine formal communication channels.
The other options are not correct because:
- B. Formal communication refers to official channels of communication within an organization, such as memos, reports, and formal meetings.
- C. Written communication refers to communication that is written down, such as emails, letters, and reports.
- D. Oral communication refers to communication that is spoken, such as conversations, meetings, and presentations.
21. For a patient of 80kg to start dopamine infusion at 10 mcg/kg/minute , how many ml /hr is to be adjusted with dilution of 400mg in 50ml?
A. 4.5ml
B. 6 ml
C. 10ml
D. 5ml
The correct answer is 6 ml
Explanation: Given data: Patient's weight = 80 kg, Dopamine dose = 10 mcg/kg/min, Dopamine concentration = 400 mg in 50 mL Infusion rate to be calculated in mL/hr
Step 1: Calculate the required dopamine dose per minute, 10mcg*80kg=800mcg/min - 800 mcg= 0.8mg/min
Step 2: Find the dopamine concentration per mL, Total concentration, 400mg in 50 ml
Step 3: Calculate the infusion rate 1mg =50/400 =1/8, 0.8mg =0.8/8= 0.1 ml/mt =0.1*60 =6 ml/hr
Answer: 6 mL/hr
22. Pupillary asymmetry is called........................?
A. Agraphia
B. Agnosia
C. Anosocoria
D. APGAR
The correct answer is C. Anisocoria.
Explanation : Anisocoria is a medical term that refers to the unequal size of the pupils. It can be a normal variation in some people, but it can also be a sign of an underlying medical condition, such as:
- Neurological disorders (e.g., stroke, brain tumor)
- Eye injuries or diseases (e.g., glaucoma, uveitis)
- Certain medications or toxins
The other options are not correct because:
- A. Agraphia is a neurological disorder characterized by the inability to write.
- B. Agnosia is a neurological disorder characterized by the inability to recognize or interpret sensory information.
- D. Apgar is a scoring system used to assess the health of newborn babies, with scores ranging from 0 to 10.
23. The patient is admitted with Gullian barre syndrome is having ascending paralysis up to the level of waist. The most essential item required to keep near the bedside includes...........
A. Incentive spirometer
B. nebulizer
C. intubation tray
D. Flash light
The correct answer is C. Intubation tray.
Explanation: Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a rare autoimmune disorder that can cause ascending paralysis, which can progress rapidly. One of the most critical complications of GBS is respiratory failure, which can occur due to paralysis of the diaphragm and other respiratory muscles.
Having an intubation tray nearby is essential in case the patient's respiratory status deteriorates, and they require immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation. The intubation tray should include equipment such as: Endotracheal tube, Laryngoscope, Stylet, Suction device
The other options are not as critical in this scenario:
- A. Incentive spirometer: While an incentive spirometer can help encourage deep breathing and lung expansion, it is not as essential as an intubation tray in this scenario.
- B. Nebulizer: A nebulizer may be used to deliver medications or humidify the air, but it is not as critical as an intubation tray.
- D. Flashlight: A flashlight may be useful for assessing the patient's pupils or airway, but it is not as essential as an intubation tray.
24. GUSS is an assessment technique to check.............?
A. Skin integrity
B. neurological status
C. Dysphagia
D. Stroke severity
Correct answer: C. Dysphagia
Explanation: The GUSS (Gugging Swallowing Screen) is an assessment technique used to check dysphagia (difficulty in swallowing).
GUSS is commonly used to evaluate swallowing function in stroke patients and helps determine the risk of aspiration.
The GUSS scale is a tool used to assess the severity of dysphagia (swallowing disorders). GUSS stands for:
G - Gag reflex
U - Uncoordinated swallow
S - Saliva control
S - Swallowing ability
The GUSS scale evaluates these four aspects of swallowing function to determine the severity of dysphagia:
- Gag reflex: Presence or absence of gag reflex
- Uncoordinated swallow: Coordination and timing of the swallow
- Saliva control: Ability to manage saliva
- Swallowing ability: Ability to swallow safely and efficiently
Each aspect is scored, and the total score indicates the severity of dysphagia:
- Mild dysphagia
- Moderate dysphagia
- Severe dysphagia
The GUSS scale helps healthcare professionals assess and monitor dysphagia, guiding treatment decisions and interventions to improve swallowing function.
25. Which of the following should the nurse expect to note as a frequent complication of a child with congenital heart disease?
A. Susceptibility of respiratory infection
B. bleeding tendency
C. Frequent vomiting and diarrhea
D. Seizure disorder
The correct answer is A. Susceptibility to respiratory infection.
Explanation: Children with congenital heart disease (CHD) are more prone to respiratory infections due to several factors:
1. Increased pulmonary blood flow: CHD can lead to increased blood flow to the lungs, causing congestion and making it easier for infections to develop.
2. Decreased lung function: CHD can affect lung development and function, making it harder for the child to clear respiratory secretions and fight off infections.
3. Immature immune system: Children with CHD may have an immature immune system, making them more susceptible to infections.
4. Frequent hospitalizations: Children with CHD may require frequent hospitalizations, which increases their exposure to hospital-acquired infections.
The other options are not as directly related to CHD:
B. Bleeding tendency: While some children with CHD may be at risk for bleeding due to anticoagulation therapy, it is not a direct complication of CHD.
C. Frequent vomiting and diarrhea: Gastrointestinal symptoms can occur in children with CHD, but they are not as common as respiratory infections.
D. Seizure disorder: Seizures can occur in children with CHD, particularly those with complex defects or a history of cardiac surgery, but they are not as frequent as respiratory infections.
Comments
Post a Comment