NURSING OFFICER EXAM MCQs - SERIES - 2 (AIIMS, Kerala PSC,DME, DHS, RRB, ESIC, NIMHANS, DSSB, CHO, JIPMER, PGI, NHM)

            

                NURSING OFFICER EXAM MCQs
SERIES - 2  
(AIIMS, Kerala PSC,DME, DHS, RRB, ESIC, NIMHANS, DSSB, CHO, JIPMER, PGI, NHM)

1. Which type of patient assignment needs specific personnel?

          A. patient method

          B. Functional method

          C. Team method

          D. Supportive method

          The correct answer is: B. Functional method

Explanation : In the functional nursing method, specific personnel are assigned to particular tasks rather than to individual patients. For example, one nurse may be responsible for administering medications, another for wound care, and a nursing assistant for vital signs and hygiene. This method requires personnel with specific skills to handle designated duties efficiently.

2. Induction training is also known as .....................?

          A. Orientation

          B. Refresher

          C. Indoctrination

          D. Direction

          The correct answer is A. Orientation.

Explanation: Induction training is also commonly referred to as orientation training. It is a type of training that introduces new employees in a hospital , its policies, procedures, and culture. The goal of induction training is to help new employees adjust to their new role and become familiar with the work environment.

Induction training typically covers topics such as: history and mission, Policies and procedures, Job expectations and responsibilities, Benefits and compensation, Safety protocols, Introduction to colleagues and team members

The other options are not correct:

B. Refresher training is a type of training that updates or refreshes an employee's existing knowledge or skills.

C. Indoctrination is a term that implies a more intense or coercive form of training.

D. Direction is not a term commonly used to describe a type of training.

3. TRAP is co-related to..................?

          A. Brain tumor

          B. Epilepsy

          C. Parkinson's disease

          D. Stroke

          The correct answer is: C. Parkinson's disease

Explanation: TRAP is an acronym used to describe the primary motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease:

Tremor (shaking, usually at rest)

Rigidity (stiffness in muscles)

Akinesia or Bradykinesia (lack of movement or slowness of movement)

Postural instability (balance and coordination issues)

These symptoms are key indicators in diagnosing Parkinson’s disease.

4. Normal PH of blood is........

          A. 7.5-7.6

          B. 7.35-7.45

          C. 6.34-6.45

          D. 6.5-7

          Correct answer is B

5.Window period of intravenous thrombolysis for acute stroke is..........

          A. <4.5 hrs

          B. <6 hrs

          C. <5 hrs

          D.< 5.5 hrs

          The correct answer is A. <4.5 hrs.

Explanation: The window period for intravenous thrombolysis in acute ischemic stroke is typically within 4.5 hours from the onset of symptoms. This is based on the results of several clinical trials, including the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke (NINDS) trial and the European Cooperative Acute Stroke Study (ECASS).

Intravenous tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is the most commonly used thrombolytic agent for acute ischemic stroke, and it is most effective when administered within this 4.5-hour window.

The other options are not correct:

6. The nurse in the coronary care should observe for one of the most common complication of myocardial infarction is..................?

          A. Hypokalemia

          B. Anaphylactic shock

          C. Cardiac dysrhythmia

          D. Cardiac enlargement

          The correct answer is C. Cardiac dysrhythmia.

Explanation: Cardiac dysrhythmias, also known as arrhythmias, are a common complication of myocardial infarction (MI). During an MI, the heart muscle is damaged, which can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, leading to arrhythmias.

Some common arrhythmias that can occur after an MI include: Ventricular fibrillation (Vfib), Ventricular tachycardia (Vtach), Atrial fibrillation (Afib), Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

The nurse in the coronary care unit (CCU) should closely monitor the patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) and be prepared to intervene quickly if an arrhythmia occurs.

The other options are not correct:

A. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) can occur after an MI, but it is not the most common complication.

B. Anaphylactic shock is a severe allergic reaction that is not typically associated with MI.

D. Cardiac enlargement (cardiomegaly) can occur after an MI, but it is not the most common complication.

7. Nursing audit is used to .............................................?

          A. Assess quality of patient care

          B. Assess money transaction for patient care

          C. Assess cost effective care

          D. Assess patient satisfaction

          The correct answer is A. Assess quality of patient care.

A nursing audit is a systematic process used to evaluate and improve the quality of patient care provided by nurses. It involves reviewing and analyzing nursing practices, policies, and procedures to ensure that they meet established standards and guidelines.

The purpose of a nursing audit is to: Evaluate the quality of care provided to patients, Identify areas for improvement, Develop strategies to improve patient outcomes, Ensure compliance with regulatory and accreditation standards

The other options are not correct:

B. Assessing money transactions for patient care is more related to financial auditing.

C. Assessing cost-effective care is an important aspect of healthcare, but it is not the primary purpose of a nursing audit.

D. Assessing patient satisfaction is an important aspect of quality improvement, but it is not the primary purpose of a nursing audit.

8. Which of the following sites is not suitable for injections?

           A. Upper outer quadrant of the buttocks

           B. Lateral aspect of thigh

           C. Outer aspect of shoulder

           D. Medial aspect of thigh

           The correct answer is: D. Medial aspect of thigh

Explanation: The medial aspect of the thigh is not suitable for injections because it contains major blood vessels and nerves, increasing the risk of injury. The recommended sites for injections are: Upper outer quadrant of the buttocks (gluteus medius) – Suitable for intramuscular (IM) injections. Lateral aspect of the thigh (vastus lateralis) – Preferred site for IM injections in infants and young children. Outer aspect of the shoulder (deltoid muscle) – Common site for IM injections, especially vaccines.

9. Which is the maximum time for the nurse allows on IV bag of solution to infuse in to the patient?

          A. 6 hrs

          B. 12 hrs

          C. 18 hrs

          D. 24 hrs

          The correct answer is D. 24 hrs.

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Infusion Nurses Society (INS), the maximum recommended time for an intravenous (IV) bag of solution to infuse into a patient is 24 hours.

This is because: IV solutions can become contaminated with bacteria or other microorganisms after 24 hours, which can increase the risk of infection. IV solutions can also become unstable or degrade over time, which can affect their potency or safety.

10. Of the following combination of symptoms the most indicative of increased intra cranial pressure is.......................?

          A. Weak rapid pulse, normal blood pressure, intermittent fever, lethargy

          B. Rapid weak pulse, fall in blood pressure, low temperature, restlessness

          C. Slow bounding pulse, rising blood pressure, elevated temperature, stupor

          D. Slow bounding pulse, fall in blood pressure, temperature below 97 *c , stupor

          The correct answer is C. Slow bounding pulse, rising blood pressure,

          elevated temperature, stupor.

Explanation: This combination of symptoms is most indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Here's why:

Slow bounding pulse: A slow pulse rate with a strong, bounding pulse is a classic sign of increased ICP.

Rising blood pressure: As ICP increases, blood pressure often rises to compensate for the increased pressure.

Elevated temperature: Fever can be a sign of increased ICP, possibly due to the body's response to the increased pressure.

Stupor: Altered mental status, including stupor, is a common symptom of increased ICP.

The other options are not as indicative of increased ICP:

A. Weak rapid pulse, normal blood pressure, intermittent fever, lethargy: This combination of symptoms could be indicative of sepsis or other conditions.

B. Rapid weak pulse, fall in blood pressure, low temperature, restlessness: This combination of symptoms could be indicative of shock or other conditions.

D. Slow bounding pulse, fall in blood pressure, temperature below 97°C, stupor: This combination of symptoms is not as indicative of increased ICP, as the falling blood pressure and low temperature are not typical signs of increased ICP. It's worth noting that increased ICP can manifest in different ways, and this combination of symptoms is not exhaustive.

11. WHO evolved "DOTS" for the effective control of ...................?

          A. Leprosy

          B. Tuberculosis

          C. Poliomyelitis

          D. Malaria

          The correct answer is B. Tuberculosis.

Explanation: DOTS (Directly Observed Treatment, Short-course) is a strategy developed by the World Health Organization (WHO) for the effective control and treatment of tuberculosis (TB). The DOTS strategy involves:

1. Directly observed treatment: A healthcare worker or other designated person observes the patient taking their medication to ensure adherence.

2. Short-course chemotherapy: A standardized, 6-month treatment regimen using a combination of antibiotics. The DOTS strategy has been widely adopted and has been shown to be highly effective in controlling TB, particularly in low- and middle-income countries.

The other options are not correct:

A. Leprosy: While the WHO has developed strategies for leprosy control, DOTS is not specifically used for leprosy.

C. Poliomyelitis: The WHO has developed strategies for polio eradication, but DOTS is not used for polio.

D. Malaria: The WHO has developed strategies for malaria control, but DOTS is not used for malaria.

12. A nurse is removing an indwelling urinary catheter which of the following action is appropriate?

          A. Wear sterile gloves

          B. Cut the lumen of the balloon

          C. Document the time of removal

          D. Position the patient in the left side

          The correct answer is C. Document the time of removal.

Explanation: When removing an indwelling urinary catheter, the nurse should: Explain the procedure to the patient and ensure their understanding and consent. Wash their hands thoroughly. Use clean gloves (not necessarily sterile gloves). Deflate the balloon by withdrawing the fluid with a syringe. Gently pull out the catheter. Document the time of removal, the amount of urine drained, and any complications or concerns.

The other options are not correct:

A. Sterile gloves are not typically necessary for removing an indwelling urinary catheter, but clean gloves are essential.

B. Cutting the lumen of the balloon is not recommended, as it can cause damage to the catheter and potentially lead to complications.

D. Positioning the patient on their left side is not a specific requirement for removing an indwelling urinary catheter. The patient can be positioned comfortably, depending on their individual needs.

13.In endotracheal suctioning the nurse must remember that it is important to

          A. Give 100% OXYGEN before suctioning

          B. Give propped up position before suctioning

          C. Give RT feed before suctioning

          D. Insert the catheter until the cough reflex is stimulated

          The correct answer is A. Give 100% OXYGEN before suctioning.

Explanation: Endotracheal suctioning is a procedure that involves inserting a catheter into the endotracheal tube to remove secretions from the lungs. To ensure the patient's safety and comfort, it is essential to:

Administer 100% oxygen before suctioning to help prevent hypoxia and ensure adequate oxygenation.

Hyperoxygenate the patient for at least 30 seconds to 1 minute before suctioning.

The other options are not correct:

B. While positioning the patient in a propped-up position may be helpful in some cases, it is not a specific requirement for endotracheal suctioning.

C. Giving a respiratory therapy (RT) treatment before suctioning may not be necessary, and the priority is to ensure adequate oxygenation.

D. Inserting the catheter until the cough reflex is stimulated is not recommended, as it can cause unnecessary discomfort and potentially lead to complications. Instead, the catheter should be inserted gently and carefully, and suction should be applied intermittently as needed.

14. Effective in terminating status epilepticus

          A. IV diazepam

          B. IV valproate

          C. IV morphine

          D. IV midazolam

          The correct answer is D. IV midazolam.

Explanation: IV midazolam is a benzodiazepine that is commonly used to terminate status epilepticus, a life-threatening condition characterized by prolonged or repeated seizures without full recovery between them. Midazolam has several advantages over other options:

- Rapid onset of action: Midazolam has a rapid onset of action, typically within 1-2 minutes, making it effective in quickly terminating seizures.

- High efficacy: Midazolam has a high success rate in terminating status epilepticus, especially when used as a first-line treatment.

- Ease of administration: Midazolam can be administered intravenously, intramuscularly, or even intranasally, making it a convenient option in emergency situations.

The other options are not as effective or have limitations:

A. IV diazepam is also a benzodiazepine, but it has a slower onset of action compared to midazolam.

B. IV valproate is an anticonvulsant medication, but it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for status epilepticus.

C. IV morphine is an opioid analgesic, but it is not effective in terminating seizures and can even worsen respiratory depression.

15. When performing compression on adult client ,nurse is aware that it is essential to exert vertical downward pressure, which depresses the lower sternum at least:

           A. 0.5-0.75 inch

          B. 1-1.5 inch

          c. 0.75-1 inch

          D. 1.5-2 inch

          The correct answer is: D 1.5 to 2 Inch

Explanation: According to the American Heart Association (AHA) guidelines, the recommended compression depth for CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation) is:

- At least 2 inches (5 cm) in adults

- At least 1/3 of the chest cavity in infants (approximately 1.5 inches or 3.8 cm)

- At least 1/3 of the chest cavity in children (approximately 2 inches or 5 cm)

It's also important to note that the compression depth should be adjusted based on the individual's body size and composition. The goal is to compress the chest to a depth that allows for effective blood flow and cardiac output.

16. The term used to interpret auditing of past event

          A. Concurrent auditing

          B. Retrospective auditing

          C. Terminal auditing

          D. Internal auditing

          The correct answer is B. Retrospective auditing.

Explanation: Retrospective auditing refers to the process of reviewing and analyzing past events, transactions, or decisions to evaluate their effectiveness, efficiency, and compliance with policies and procedures.

Retrospective auditing involves looking back at past events to:

- Identify what happened

- Determine the causes and consequences of the events

- Evaluate the effectiveness of existing policies and procedures

- Identify areas for improvement

The other options are not correct:

A. Concurrent auditing refers to the process of auditing an event or transaction as it occurs, in real-time.

C. Terminal auditing is not a recognized term in auditing.

D. Internal auditing refers to the process of auditing an organization's internal controls, processes, and systems to ensure they are operating effectively and efficiently. While internal auditing may involve retrospective auditing, the two terms are not synonymous.

17. A broad statement of the purpose, duties, scope and responsibilities associated with job?

          A. Job description

          B. Job analysis

          C. Job evaluation

          D. Job enlargement

          The correct answer is A. Job description.

Explanation:  A job description is a written statement that outlines the purpose, duties, scope, and responsibilities associated with a particular job. It provides a clear and concise overview of the job's requirements, expectations, and goals.

A job description typically includes: Job title and summary, Key responsibilities and duties, Scope of authority and accountability, Performance expectations and goals, Required skills, knowledge, and qualifications

The other options are not correct:

B. Job analysis is the process of collecting and analyzing data about a job to identify its key components, responsibilities, and requirements.

C. Job evaluation is the process of assessing the relative value or worth of a job within an organization, often for the purpose of determining compensation.

D. Job enlargement refers to the process of adding new tasks, responsibilities, or challenges to an existing job to make it more engaging, motivating, and rewarding.

18. When transporting a patient on a stretcher the nurse make sure that the client's arms do not hang down over the edge. By taking this precaution the nurse prevents injury to the ..........................?

          A. Solar plexus

          B. celiac plexus

          C. Basilar plexus.

          D. Brachial plexus

          The correct answer is D. Brachial plexus.

Explanation: The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates in the spinal cord and extends into the arm. It is located in the neck and shoulder region. When transporting a patient on a stretcher, it is essential to ensure that their arms do not hang down over the edge, as this can cause stretching or compression of the brachial plexus. This can lead to nerve damage, pain, numbness, tingling, or weakness in the arm.

The other options are not correct:

A. Solar plexus: This is a network of nerves located in the abdominal region, and it is not directly related to the arms.

B. Celiac plexus: This is a network of nerves located in the abdominal region, and it is not directly related to the arms.

C. Basilar plexus: There is no such thing as the "basilar plexus." However, the basilar artery is a blood vessel located at the base of the brain, and it is not directly related to the arms.

19. Optimum time for single sweep endotracheal suctioning?

          A. 5-10 sec

          B. 10-15 sec

          C. 20 sec

          D. 30 sec

          The correct answer is B. 10-15 sec.

Explanation: The American Association for Respiratory Care (AARC) and the American Heart Association (AHA) recommend that endotracheal suctioning be limited to a single sweep of 10-15 seconds. This duration is considered optimal because: It allows for effective removal of secretions from the airway. It minimizes the risk of hypoxia and hypercapnia. It reduces the risk of trauma to the airway mucosa.

Suctioning for longer than 15 seconds can lead to: Hypoxia and hypercapnia, Increased risk of airway trauma, Decreased lung volumes

The other options are not correct:

A. 5-10 sec: This duration may be too short to effectively remove secretions.

C. 20 sec: This duration is longer than recommended and may increase the risk of complications.

D. 30 sec: This duration is significantly longer than recommended and may lead to serious complications.

20. A drug which should not be kept in emergency trolley?

          A. Inj. Adrenaline

          B. Inj. Atropine sulpahate

          C. Inj. Hydrocortisone

          D. Inj. Potassium chloride

          The correct answer is D. Inj. Potassium chloride.

Explanation : Potassium chloride (KCL) is a medication that is used to treat potassium deficiency (hypokalemia). However, it is not typically used in emergency situations and can be hazardous if administered incorrectly.

The other options are commonly used in emergency situations:

A. Inj. Adrenaline (epinephrine) is used to treat anaphylaxis, cardiac arrest, and severe asthma attacks.

B. Inj. Atropine sulfate is used to treat bradycardia (slow heart rate), asystole (flatline), and organophosphate poisoning.

C. Inj. Hydrocortisone is used to treat severe allergic reactions, asthma, and adrenal insufficiency.

Inj. Potassium chloride is not typically kept in an emergency trolley (also known as a crash cart) because: It is not used in emergency situations, It can be hazardous if administered incorrectly, It requires careful monitoring of potassium levels to avoid overdose.

21. Soon after being admitted to the hospital for head injuries , a patient's temperature rises to 102.2 *F . The nurse recognize that this indicate an injury of the....................................?

         A. Pallidum

         B. Thalamus

         C. Temporal lobe

         D. Hypothalamus

         The correct answer is D. Hypothalamus.

Explanation: The hypothalamus is the part of the brain that regulates body temperature, among other functions. An injury to the hypothalamus can disrupt its ability to regulate body temperature, leading to hyperthermia (elevated body temperature). In this scenario, the patient's rising temperature (102.2°F) shortly after admission for head injuries suggests an injury to the hypothalamus.

The other options are not correct:

A. Pallidum: The pallidum is a part of the basal ganglia, which is involved in movement control. An injury to the pallidum would more likely affect movement rather than temperature regulation.

B. Thalamus: The thalamus is a structure that relays sensory information to the cortex. While it plays a role in processing sensory information, it is not directly involved in temperature regulation.

C. Temporal lobe: The temporal lobe is involved in processing auditory information, memory, and language. While it can be affected by head injuries, it is not directly responsible for regulating body temperature.

22. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. What intervention is the nurses' priority?

          A. Administration of digoxin IV push

          B. administration of o2 2 li/mt

          C. Rapid IV bolus of adenosine

          D. Instructing patient to "bear down"

         The correct answer is C. Rapid IV bolus of adenosine.

Explanation: Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) is a type of abnormal heart rhythm, or arrhythmia, that originates in the upper chambers of the heart (atria) and can cause the heart to beat too quickly.

The priority intervention for PSVT is to administer a rapid IV bolus of adenosine, which is a medication that can help slow down the heart rate and convert the arrhythmia back to a normal sinus rhythm.

Adenosine works by: Slowing down the conduction of electrical impulses in the heart, Increasing the refractory period of the atrioventricular (AV) node

The other options are not correct:

A. Administration of digoxin IV push: Digoxin is a medication used to treat heart failure and certain arrhythmias, but it is not the first-line treatment for PSVT.

B. Administration of O2 2 L/min: While oxygen therapy may be administered to patients with PSVT, it is not the priority intervention.

D. Instructing patient to "bear down": The Valsalva maneuver, which involves having the patient "bear down" or strain, can sometimes be used to help convert PSVT back to a normal sinus rhythm. However, this is not

23. Glasgow coma scale is a measure of

          A. Level of consciousness

          B. Memory

          C. Intracranial pressure

          D. Vision

          The correct answer is A. Level of consciousness.

Explanation: The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a neurological scale used to assess the level of consciousness in a person following a brain injury, such as a traumatic brain injury (TBI) or stroke. It is a widely used and well-established tool for evaluating the severity of brain injury and predicting patient outcomes.

The GCS assesses three aspects of consciousness:

  1. Eye opening (4 points)

  2. Verbal response (5 points)

  3. Motor response (6 points)

The total score ranges from 3 to 15, with higher scores indicating better neurological function.

The other options are not correct:

B. Memory: While the GCS assesses some aspects of cognitive function, it is not a comprehensive measure of memory.

C. Intracranial pressure: The GCS does not directly measure intracranial pressure (ICP), although it can provide indirect clues about ICP through assessment of pupillary responses and other neurological signs.

D. Vision: The GCS assesses eye opening and pupillary responses, but it is not a comprehensive measure of vision.

24. A nurse should teach a patient to withhold the prescribed dose of digoxin if the patient experiences...........................?

          A. sinusitis

          B. Chest pain

          C. Blurred vision

          D. increased urinary output

         The correct answer is: C. Blurred vision

Explanation: Blurred vision, along with other visual disturbances like seeing yellow or green halos around lights, is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity. Other symptoms include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and bradycardia. If a patient experiences these symptoms, they should withhold the dose and contact their healthcare provider immediately.

25. While a pacemaker catheter is inserted to the client's heart rate drops to 38. The drus of choices for this situation is....................?

          A. Atropine sulphate

          B. Digoxin

          C. lidocaine

          D. Procainamide

          The correct answer is A. Atropine sulphate.

Explanation: When a pacemaker catheter is inserted, and the client's heart rate drops to 38 beats per minute (bpm), it indicates severe bradycardia (slow heart rate). Atropine sulfate is the drug of choice in this situation because:

1. Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that increases heart rate by blocking the action of the vagus nerve on the heart.

2. It is effective in treating symptomatic bradycardia, especially when the heart rate is less than 40 bpm.

3. Atropine has a rapid onset of action, typically within 1-2 minutes, making it ideal for emergency situations.

The other options are not correct:

B. Digoxin: Digoxin is used to treat heart failure and certain arrhythmias, but it can actually worsen bradycardia.

C. Lidocaine: Lidocaine is an anti-arrhythmic medication used to treat ventricular arrhythmias, but it is not typically used to treat bradycardia.

D. Procainamide: Procainamide is an anti-arrhythmic medication used to treat various arrhythmias, but it is not the first-line treatment for severe bradycardia.

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