NURSING OFFICER EXAM MCQs

SERIES - 3

(AIIMS, Kerala PSC, DME, DHS, RRB, ESIC, NIMHANS, DSSB, CHO, JIPMER, PGI, NHM)

1. The nurses are participating in a health fair at the local mall and are giving influenza vaccine to senior citizens. What is the level of prevention are the nurse participating?

A. Primary prevention

B. Secondary prevention

C. Tertiary prevention

D. Primordial prevention

The correct answer is A. Primary prevention.

Explanation: Primary prevention refers to interventions aimed at preventing the occurrence of a disease or injury. In this scenario, the nurses are administering influenza vaccines to senior citizens, which is a classic example of primary prevention.

The influenza vaccine helps to: Prevent the occurrence of influenza, Reduce the risk of complications and hospitalization. Protect vulnerable populations, such as senior citizens, from the flu

The other options are not correct:

B. Secondary prevention: Secondary prevention involves detecting and treating problems early, before they become more serious. Examples include screening tests and early treatment of diseases.

C. Tertiary prevention: Tertiary prevention involves managing and rehabilitating individuals with established diseases or injuries. Examples include physical therapy, occupational therapy, and disease management programs.

D. Primordial prevention: Primordial prevention involves preventing the emergence of risk factors for disease. This level of prevention is often focused on promoting healthy lifestyles and environments.

2. Nursing care provided that is supported by reliable research is known as:

A. Evidence based practice

B. Theory based practice

C. Knowledge based practice

D. Historical practice

The correct answer is A. Evidence-based practice.

Explanation : Evidence-based practice (EBP) refers to the use of current, best available research evidence to guide nursing decisions and interventions. EBP aims to provide high-quality, effective care that is grounded in scientific research and clinical expertise.

The key characteristics of EBP include: Use of systematic reviews and meta-analyses, Integration of research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values, Continuous evaluation and updating of practices based on new evidence

The other options are not correct:

B. Theory-based practice: Theory-based practice refers to the use of theoretical frameworks to guide nursing decisions and interventions. While theories can inform practice, they may not be based on empirical evidence.

C. Knowledge-based practice: Knowledge-based practice refers to the use of knowledge and experience to guide nursing decisions and interventions. While knowledge and experience are important, they may not be based on current, best available research evidence.

D. Historical practice: Historical practice refers to the use of traditional or established practices that may not be based on current research evidence. Historical practices may be outdated or ineffective, and may not provide the best possible care for patients.

3. Who has decreased mortality by improving sanitation in the battlefields resulting in a decrease of illness and infection?

A. Florence nightingale

B. Clara barton

C. Dorathea dix

D. Lillian wald

The correct answer is A. Florence Nightingale.

Explanation: Florence Nightingale is considered the founder of modern nursing, and her work during the Crimean War (1853-1856) had a significant impact on reducing mortality rates.

Nightingale's observations and statistics revealed that: Most deaths were due to preventable diseases, such as cholera, dysentery, and typhus, Poor sanitation, hygiene, and living conditions were major contributors to the spread of disease.

In response, Nightingale: Improved sanitation and hygiene practices in the military hospitals, Implemented proper waste disposal and drainage systems, Established a school of nursing to train nurses in proper care and hygiene practices.

As a result of Nightingale's efforts: Mortality rates decreased significantly, from 60% to 2%. The importance of sanitation, hygiene, and proper care in reducing mortality rates became widely recognized.

The other options are not correct:

B. Clara Barton: Clara Barton was an American nurse and humanitarian who founded the American Red Cross. While she made significant contributions to nursing and humanitarian work, she is not credited with improving sanitation in battlefields.

C. Dorothea Dix: Dorothea Dix was an American nurse and activist who worked to improve the care of the mentally ill and the poor. While she made significant contributions to nursing and social reform, she is not credited with improving sanitation in battlefields.

D. Lillian Wald: Lillian Wald was an American nurse and social worker who founded the Henry Street Settlement in New York City. While she made significant contributions to public health nursing and social reform, she is not credited with improving sanitation in battlefields.

4. Which of the following are the four basic techniques of physical examination?

A. Interview, inspection, percussion, resonance

B. Inspection, palpation, percussion, imaging

C. Interview, subject data, closure

D. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

The correct answer is D. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation.

The four basic techniques of physical examination are:

1. Inspection: Visual examination of the patient's body, including observation of size, shape, color, and movement.

2. Palpation: Examination by touch, using the hands to feel the size, shape, texture, and consistency of various body parts.

3. Percussion: Tapping on the body to determine the size, shape, and position of internal organs, and to detect any abnormalities.

4. Auscultation: Listening to the sounds produced by the body, such as heart sounds, lung sounds, and bowel sounds, using a stethoscope.

These four techniques are fundamental to physical examination and are used to gather information about the patient's health status.

The other options are not correct:

A. Interview, inspection, percussion, resonance: While interview and inspection are important parts of the physical examination, resonance is not a basic technique.

B. Inspection, palpation, percussion, imaging: Imaging (e.g., X-rays, CT scans) is a diagnostic tool, but it is not a basic technique of physical examination.

C. Interview, subject data, closure: These are not techniques of physical examination, but rather components of the nursing process or patient assessment.

5. Which of the following terms denotes patient's inability to void even though the kidneys are producing urine that enters the bladder?

A. Urgency

B. Retention

C. Oliguria

D. Dysuria

The correct answer is B. Retention.

Explanation: Urinary retention refers to the inability to void or empty the bladder, despite the presence of urine. This can occur even if the kidneys are producing urine that enters the bladder.

There are two types of urinary retention:

1. Acute urinary retention: Sudden inability to void, often caused by obstruction, medication, or neurological disorders.

2. Chronic urinary retention: Long-term inability to void, often caused by bladder muscle weakness, neurological disorders, or obstruction.

The other options are not correct:

A. Urgency: A sudden, intense need to void, often accompanied by discomfort or pain.

C. Oliguria: Producing small amounts of urine, often less than 400 mL per day.

D. Dysuria: Painful or difficult urination, often accompanied by burning, stinging, or discomfort.

These terms all relate to urinary function, but they describe different symptoms or conditions.

6. Chyne-stoke respiration describes

A. Rapid breathing

B. difficult breathing

C. Moust/ strenuous breathing

D. Period of apnea and hyperventilation

The correct answer is D. Period of apnea and hyperventilation.

Explanation: Cheyne-Stokes respiration (CSR) is a type of abnormal breathing pattern characterized by: Periods of apnea (no breathing) or hypoventilation (shallow breathing), Followed by periods of hyperventilation (deep and rapid breathing)

his cycle of apnea and hyperventilation can repeat itself, creating a distinctive waxing and waning pattern.

Cheyne-Stokes respiration is often seen in: Patients with severe brain injury or stroke, Those with heart failure or cardiac arrest, Individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), Patients in a coma or vegetative state

The other options are not correct:

A. Rapid breathing: While CSR can involve rapid breathing during the hyperventilation phase, it is not characterized solely by rapid breathing.

B. Difficult breathing: CSR is not necessarily characterized by difficult breathing, although patients with CSR may experience respiratory distress.

C. Most/strenuous breathing: CSR is not typically described as the most strenuous type of breathing.

7. The angle of insertion of intra muscular injection is:

A. 90 degree

B. 30 degree

C. 160 degree

D. 180 degree

The correct answer is A. 90 degree.

Explanation: For an intramuscular (IM) injection, the needle is inserted at a 90-degree angle to the skin. This allows the medication to be deposited directly into the muscle tissue.

Inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle helps to: Ensure the medication is delivered into the muscle, rather than subcutaneously (under the skin). Minimize discomfort and pain. Reduce the risk of nerve damage.

The other options are not correct:

B. 30 degree: This angle is typically used for subcutaneous injections, not intramuscular injections.

C. 160 degree: This angle is not a standard angle for IM injections.

D. 180 degree: This angle would result in the needle being inserted parallel to the skin, which is not correct for IM injections.

8. The purpose of making mitten corners while doing bed making is:

A. To keep bed linen secure

B. To provide warmth

C. To prevent cross infection

D.to prevent foot drop

The correct answer is A. To keep bed linen secure.

Explanation: Mitten corners, also known as "hospital corners," are a technique used to secure bed linens in place, particularly in healthcare settings. The purpose of making mitten corners is to:

Keep the bed sheets and blankets securely in place, preventing them from shifting or coming undone. Prevent the linens from getting tangled or bunched up. Maintain a neat and tidy appearance of the bed

The other options are not correct:

B. To provide warmth: While keeping the bed linens secure can help maintain warmth, it is not the primary purpose of making mitten corners.

C. To prevent cross-infection: Mitten corners do not directly contribute to preventing cross-infection.

D. To prevent foot drop: Foot drop is a condition that affects the muscles and nerves in the foot, and mitten corners are not related to preventing or managing this condition.

9. One example of isotonic solution is...............................?

A. 0.9 % Nacl

B. 0.45 % nacl

C. 3% Nacl

D. 5% Nacl

The correct answer is A. 0.9% NaCl.

Explanation: An isotonic solution is a solution that has the same concentration of solutes as human blood plasma. In other words, it has the same osmotic pressure as blood.

0.9% NaCl (sodium chloride) solution, also known as normal saline, is an example of an isotonic solution. It has a concentration of 0.9 grams of sodium chloride per 100 milliliters of solution, which is similar to the concentration of sodium chloride in human blood plasma.

The other options are not correct:

B. 0.45% NaCl: This is a hypotonic solution, meaning it has a lower concentration of solutes than human blood plasma.

C. 3% NaCl: This is a hypertonic solution, meaning it has a higher concentration of solutes than human blood plasma.

D. 5% NaCl: This is also a hypertonic solution.

Isotonic solutions are often used in medical settings for various purposes, such as: Intravenous fluids, Irrigation solutions, Wound cleansing

10. The nurse is preparing to take a pulse on a patient who is receiving digoxin, which affect the heart rate. This assessment needs to be completed prior to the medications administration. Which skill is correct when assessing the pulse of this patient?

A. A rapid pulse taken for 15 sec

B. A femoral pule taken for 15 sec

C. A carotid pulse taken for a full minute

D. An apical pulse taken for a full minute

The correct answer is D. An apical pulse taken for a full minute.

Explanation: When assessing a patient who is receiving digoxin, it's essential to take an accurate pulse reading before administering the medication. Digoxin can affect heart rate, and an accurate pulse reading is crucial to ensure the patient's safety.

The American Heart Association recommends taking an apical pulse for a full minute when assessing patients receiving digoxin. This is because: The apical pulse is the most accurate site for assessing heart rate. Taking the pulse for a full minute allows for detection of any irregularities or arrhythmias

The other options are not correct:

A. A rapid pulse taken for 15 sec: Taking a rapid pulse for 15 seconds may not provide an accurate reading, especially if the patient has an irregular heartbeat.

B. A femoral pulse taken for 15 sec: The femoral pulse is not the most accurate site for assessing heart rate, and taking it for 15 seconds may not provide a reliable reading.

C. A carotid pulse taken for a full minute: While taking a carotid pulse can provide an accurate reading, it's not the recommended site for assessing patients receiving digoxin. The apical pulse is preferred.

11. Supination is..............................?

A. Turn lower arm an hand so palm is down

B. Turn lower armand hand so palm is up

C. Turn palm toward the inner aspect of forearm

D. Turn fingers position to midline

The correct answer is B. Turn lower arm and hand so palm is up.

Explanation: Supination is a movement of the forearm that involves:Rotating the forearm so that the palm faces upwards. Turning the lower arm and hand so that the palm is facing anteriorly (towards the front). Supination is the opposite of pronation, which involves rotating the forearm so that the palm faces downwards.

The other options are not correct:

A. Turning the lower arm and hand so that the palm is down is actually pronation, not supination.

C. Turning the palm towards the inner aspect of the forearm is not a correct description of supination.

D. Turning the fingers to the midline is not a correct description of supination.

Supination is an important movement that allows us to perform various daily activities, such as: Holding objects with the palm facing upwards, Using utensils, like spoons or forks, Performing tasks that require rotating the forearm

12. Which of the following is an indication for a binder to be placed around a surgical patient with a new abdominal wound?

A. Collection of wound drainage

B. Providing support to abdominal tissues when coughing and walking

C. Reduction of abdominal swelling

D. Stimulation of peristalsis

The correct answer is B. Providing support to abdominal tissues when coughing and walking.

Explanation: An abdominal binder is a wide, elastic bandage that wraps around the abdomen to provide support and compression. It is often used after abdominal surgery to: Provide support to the abdominal tissues and wound, especially when coughing, sneezing, or walking. Help reduce strain on the wound and surrounding tissues. Promote comfort and reduce discomfort or pain

The other options are not correct indications for an abdominal binder:

A. Collection of wound drainage: An abdominal binder is not typically used to collect wound drainage. Instead, dressings or drainage devices are used for this purpose.

C. Reduction of abdominal swelling: While an abdominal binder may provide some compression, it is not typically used to reduce abdominal swelling. Other treatments, such as elevation or compression stockings, may be more effective.

D. Stimulation of peristalsis: An abdominal binder is not typically used to stimulate peristalsis (the movement of food through the digestive system). Other treatments, such as medication or physical therapy, may be more effective.

13. Which of the following is the most effective way to break the chain of infection?

A. Hand hygiene

B. wearing gloves

C. Placing patients in isolation

D. Providing private rooms for patients

The correct answer is A. Hand hygiene.

Hand hygiene is widely recognized as the most effective way to break the chain of infection. It involves cleaning your hands with soap and water or using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer.

Hand hygiene is effective in breaking the chain of infection because: It reduces the transmission of microorganisms from one person to another. It prevents the spread of microorganisms from contaminated surfaces to patients. It reduces the risk of healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)

The World Health Organization (WHO) and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend hand hygiene as the primary measure to prevent the spread of infections. The other options are also important infection control measures, but they are not as effective as hand hygiene in breaking the chain of infection:

B. Wearing gloves: Gloves can prevent the transmission of microorganisms, but they are not a substitute for hand hygiene.

C. Placing patients in isolation: Isolation can prevent the spread of infections, but it is not as effective as hand hygiene in breaking the chain of infection.

D. Providing private rooms for patients: Private rooms can reduce the risk of transmission, but they are not as effective as hand hygiene in breaking the chain of infection.

14. When the patient develops dyspnea, what is the forst intervention that is to be carried out?

A. Take blood pressure

B. Elevate foot end of the bed

C. Remove pillows from the bed

D. Elevate the head of the bed

The correct answer is D. Elevate the head of the bed.

Explanation: When a patient develops dyspnea (difficulty breathing), the first intervention is to elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position (30-45 degrees). This position:- Helps to reduce respiratory distress by increasing lung expansion and improving ventilation, Decreases pressure on the diaphragm, making it easier to breathe, Can help to improve oxygenation and reduce feelings of anxiety and panic associated with dyspnea

The other options are not correct:

A. Taking blood pressure is an important vital sign, but it is not the first intervention for a patient experiencing dyspnea.

B. Elevating the foot of the bed may actually worsen respiratory distress by increasing pressure on the diaphragm.

C. Removing pillows from the bed may not provide adequate support for the patient's head and neck, and may not help to alleviate dyspnea.

After elevating the head of the bed, other interventions may include: Administering oxygen as prescribed, Encouraging slow, deep breaths, Providing emotional support and reassurance, Notifying the healthcare team of the patient's respiratory distress

15. While giving oral medication ...................position is essential to prevent aspiration?

A. High fowler's

B. Left lateral

C. sim's

D. supine

The correct answer is A. High Fowler's.

Explanation: When administering oral medications, it's essential to position the patient in a way that prevents aspiration. High Fowler's position is recommended because:

It allows the patient to sit upright with their head and shoulders elevated at an angle of 45-60 degrees. This position helps to prevent the medication from entering the airway and reduces the risk of aspiration. It also facilitates swallowing and helps the patient to manage secretions

The other options are not correct:

B. Left lateral position: This position is often used for patients who are at risk of aspiration, but it's not the most effective position for administering oral medications.

C. Sims position: This position is typically used for rectal examinations or procedures, not for administering oral medications.

D. Supine position: Lying flat on their back can increase the risk of aspiration, especially when administering oral medications. Remember to always follow proper positioning techniques and guidelines when administering medications to ensure patient safety.

16. The test considered as gold standard to detect COVID19 is.......................?

A. RTPCR

B. Rapid antigen test

C. Cartilage based nucleic acid amplification test

D. Rapid diagnostic test

The correct answer is :A RTPCR

17. The nurse is giving discharge instructions to a newly diagnosed diabetic. The nurse discusses with the patient what the dietary intake should be. this is an example of which health care service?

A. Illness prevention

B. Restorative care

C. Health promotion

D. Tertiary care

The correct answer is C. Health promotion.

Explanation: Health promotion is a healthcare service that aims to educate and empower individuals to adopt healthy behaviors and lifestyle choices. In this scenario, the nurse is providing discharge instructions to a newly diagnosed diabetic patient, which includes discussing dietary intake.

This is an example of health promotion because the nurse is: Educating the patient on healthy dietary choices to manage their diabetes, Encouraging the patient to adopt a healthy lifestyle to prevent complications, Empowering the patient to take control of their health and make informed decisions

The other options are not correct:

A. Illness prevention: While health promotion can help prevent illnesses, this specific scenario is focused on educating the patient on healthy dietary choices, which is more closely related to health promotion.

B. Restorative care: Restorative care focuses on helping patients recover from an illness or injury. In this scenario, the patient is already diagnosed with diabetes, and the nurse is providing education on management, rather than focusing on recovery.

D. Tertiary care: Tertiary care refers to specialized medical care for complex or rare conditions. While diabetes management may involve specialized care, the scenario described is focused on health promotion and education, rather than specialized medical care.

18. The multidisciplinary care model used to move patient's efficiently from admission to discharge

A. Team nursing.

B. Case management

C. Interdisciplinary care

D. Nursing process

The correct answer is B. Case management.

Explanation: Case management is a multidisciplinary care model that aims to coordinate and manage a patient's care from admission to discharge. It involves a collaborative approach between healthcare professionals, including nurses, doctors, therapists, and social workers, to:

- Assess the patient's needs and develop a personalized care plan

- Coordinate care transitions and services

- Monitor progress and adjust the care plan as needed

- Facilitate communication among healthcare team members and the patient

- Ensure efficient use of resources and timely discharge

Case management helps to: Improve patient outcomes, Reduce hospital lengths of stay, Decrease healthcare costs, Enhance patient satisfaction

The other options are not correct:

A. Team nursing: Team nursing is a nursing care delivery model that involves a team of nurses working together to provide patient care. While it may involve collaboration, it is not a multidisciplinary care model.

C. Interdisciplinary care: Interdisciplinary care refers to collaboration among healthcare professionals from different disciplines. While it is an important aspect of case management, it is not a specific care model.

D. Nursing process: The nursing process is a systematic approach to nursing care that involves assessing, diagnosing, planning, implementing, and evaluating patient care. While it is an essential part of nursing practice, it is not a multidisciplinary care model.

19. The leading cause of cognitive impairment in old age is........................................?

A. Stroke

B. Malnutrition

C. Alzheimer's disease

D. Loss of cardiac reserve

The correct answer is C. Alzheimer's disease.

Explanation: Alzheimer's disease is the leading cause of cognitive impairment in older adults, accounting for 60-80% of dementia cases. It is a progressive neurological disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior.

Alzheimer's disease is characterized by: Memory loss and difficulty learning new information, Difficulty with communication, problem-solving, and judgment, Mood changes, such as anxiety, agitation, and depression, Personality changes and behavioral disturbances

The other options are not correct:

A. Stroke: While stroke can cause cognitive impairment, it is not the leading cause. Stroke can result in vascular dementia, but this is a different type of dementia.

B. Malnutrition: Malnutrition can contribute to cognitive decline, but it is not the leading cause of cognitive impairment in older adults.

D. Loss of cardiac reserve: Loss of cardiac reserve can contribute to cognitive decline, particularly in older adults with heart failure. However, it is not the leading cause of cognitive impairment.

20. A patient needs to learn to use a walker. Which domain is required for learning the skill?

A. Affective domain

B. Cognitive domain

C. Attentional domain

D. Psychomotor domain

The correct answer is D. Psychomotor domain.

Explanation: The psychomotor domain involves learning physical skills that require coordination, balance, and movement. Using a walker requires the patient to develop the necessary physical skills, such as: Balancing and stabilizing themselves, Coordinating their movements to walk with the walker, Developing muscle strength and endurance

The psychomotor domain involves learning through practice, repetition, and feedback. In this case, the patient will need to practice using the walker under the guidance of a healthcare professional, such as a physical therapist or occupational therapist.

The other options are not correct:

A. Affective domain: The affective domain involves learning attitudes, emotions, and values. While the patient may need to develop confidence and motivation to use the walker, the primary focus is on developing physical skills.

B. Cognitive domain: The cognitive domain involves learning knowledge, concepts, and problem-solving skills. While the patient may need to understand the proper technique for using a walker, the primary focus is on developing physical skills.

C. Attentional domain: There is no widely recognized "attentional domain" in the context of learning. However, attention is an important aspect of learning, and the patient will need to focus their attention on learning to use the walker.

21. The nurse is caring for a patient with pneumonia who has severe malnutrition. The nurse recognizes that , because of the malnutrition status, the patient is at increased risk for?

A. Cardiac disease

B. Sepsis

C. Diarrhea

D. insomnia

The correct answer is B. Sepsis.

Explanation: Severe malnutrition can impair the patient's immune system, making them more susceptible to infections and increasing the risk of sepsis. Malnutrition can: Weaken the immune system, making it harder for the body to fight off infections, Impair the functioning of white blood cells, which are essential for fighting infections, Reduce the production of antibodies, which help to fight off infections.

In a patient with pneumonia, who already has a compromised respiratory system, malnutrition can further increase the risk of sepsis.

The other options are not correct:

A. Cardiac disease: While malnutrition can have negative effects on the cardiovascular system, it is not the most direct risk associated with malnutrition in a patient with pneumonia.

C. Diarrhea: Malnutrition can lead to gastrointestinal problems, including diarrhea, but it is not the most significant risk in a patient with pneumonia.

D. Insomnia: Malnutrition can lead to fatigue, weakness, and other symptoms that may affect sleep, but insomnia is not a direct risk associated with malnutrition in a patient with pneumonia.

It's essential for the nurse to closely monitor the patient's condition and provide comprehensive care to address the malnutrition and pneumonia, and prevent potential complications like sepsis.

22. An elderly patient comes to the hospital with complaints of severe weakness and diarrhea for several days. It is important to assess which of the following problems initially?

A. Malnutrition

B. Dehydration

C. Skin breakdown

D. Incontinence

The correct answer is B. Dehydration.

Explanation: Given the patient's symptoms of severe weakness and diarrhea for several days, dehydration is a critical concern that needs to be assessed and addressed initially. Dehydration can lead to: Electrolyte imbalances, Decreased blood volume, Decreased blood pressure, Organ failure

Assessing dehydration involves: Evaluating the patient's fluid intake and output, Checking for signs of dehydration, such as dry mouth, dark urine, and decreased skin turgor, Monitoring the patient's vital signs, including blood pressure and heart rate

While the other options are also important to consider, dehydration is the most critical issue to address initially:

A. Malnutrition: Malnutrition is a concern, especially in elderly patients, but it is not as immediately life-threatening as dehydration.

C. Skin breakdown: Skin breakdown is a risk, especially if the patient is incontinent or has limited mobility, but it is not as critical as dehydration.

D. Incontinence: Incontinence may be a concern, but it is not as immediately life-threatening as dehydration.

23. When assessing the lower extremities for arterial function, which intervention should the nurse perform?

A. Assessing the medial malleoli for pitting edema

B. Performing Allen's test.

C. Palpating the pedal pulse

D. Assessing Homan's test

The correct answer is C. Palpating the pedal pulse.

Explanation: When assessing the lower extremities for arterial function, palpating the pedal pulse is a crucial intervention. The pedal pulse is located on the top of the foot, near the ankle, and is a reliable indicator of arterial blood flow to the lower extremities.

Palpating the pedal pulse allows the nurse to: Assess the presence and strength of the pulse, Evaluate the patient's peripheral circulation, Identify potential signs of arterial disease, such as weak or absent pulses

The other options are not correct:

A. Assessing the medial malleoli for pitting edema: While edema can be a sign of circulatory problems, assessing for pitting edema is not a direct assessment of arterial function.

B. Performing Allen's test: Allen's test is used to assess blood flow to the hands, not the lower extremities.

D. Assessing Homan's test: Homan's test is used to assess for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), not arterial function. Palpating the pedal pulse is a simple yet effective way to assess arterial function in the lower extremities.

24. A patient's effort to manage psychological stress is known as:

A. Secondary appraisal

B. Coping

C. Primary appraisal

D. Distress

The correct answer is B. Coping.

Explanation: Coping refers to the specific strategies and techniques people use to manage and reduce psychological stress, including emotional, cognitive, and behavioral responses.

The other options are related to stress and appraisal, but are not the same as coping:

A. Secondary appraisal: Evaluating the effectiveness of one's coping efforts and resources.

C. Primary appraisal: Evaluating a situation as stressful or threatening.

D. Distress: A state of emotional suffering or discomfort, often in response to a stressful situation.

Coping is an important concept in psychology and nursing, as it can influence an individual's ability to manage stress, adapt to challenging situations, and maintain their physical and mental well-being.

25. While auscultating the adult patient's lungs, the nurse hears loud, bubble sounds during inspiration that do not disappear after the patient cough. Which finding should the nurse document form the lung assessment?

A. Rhonchi

B. Coarse crackles

C. Sibilant wheeze

D. Pleural friction rub

The correct answer is B. Coarse crackles.

Explanation: Coarse crackles are loud, bubble-like sounds heard during inspiration, often indicative of fluid-filled airways or alveoli. They do not clear with coughing, which distinguishes them from finer crackles.

Characteristics of coarse crackles: Loud, bubble-like sounds, Heard during inspiration, Do not clear with coughing, Often associated with conditions like pneumonia, chronic bronchitis, or pulmonary edema

The other options are not correct:

A. Rhonchi: Rhonchi are low-pitched, rumbling sounds heard during expiration, often associated with airway obstruction.

C. Sibilant wheeze: Sibilant wheezes are high-pitched, musical sounds heard during expiration, often associated with asthma or COPD.

D. Pleural friction rub: Pleural friction rubs are grating, scratching sounds heard during inspiration and expiration, often associated with pleurisy or pleural effusion.

Accurate documentation of lung sounds is crucial for diagnosing and managing respiratory conditions.

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