NURSING OFFICER EXAM MCQs

SERIES - 7

(AIIMS, Kerala PSC,DME, DHS, RRB, ESIC, NIMHANS, DSSB, CHO, JIPMER, PGI, NHM)

1. Thin superficial compact layer of decidua covering the blastocyst?

A-Decidua basalis

B-Decidua capsularis

C-Decidua parietalis

D-Decidua vera

Correct Answer: B-Decidua capsularis

Explanation : Decidua capsularis is a thin layer of compact cells that covers the embryoblast (the part of the blastocyst that will form the fetus) and separates it from the uterine cavity.

Decidua capsularis plays a role in:

Separating the embryo from the uterine cavity
Regulating exchange between the embryo and the mother

The other options:

A-Decidua basalis: This is the layer of decidua that interacts with the trophoblast (the part of the blastocyst that will form the placenta) and contributes to the formation of the placenta.

C-Decidua parietalis (also known as Decidua vera): This is the layer of decidua that lines the rest of the uterus, away from the implantation site.

D-Decidua vera is another name for Decidua parietalis, so it's not the correct answer in this case.

2. Brownish black pigmented area in the midline of the abdomen of a pregnant woman extending from xiphisternum to symphysis pubis ?

A-Striae gravidarum

B-Chloasma gravidarum

C-Linea alba

D-Linea nigra

Correct Answer: D-Linea nigra

Explanation: Linea nigra is a dark, vertical line that appears on the abdomen during pregnancy, typically extending from the xiphoid process (near the breastbone) to the pubic symphysis. It's caused by hormonal changes and increased melanin production.

The other options:

A-Striae gravidarum: These are stretch marks that can appear on the abdomen, breasts, and thighs during pregnancy.

B-Chloasma gravidarum: Also known as melasma, this is a condition characterized by dark patches on the face, often referred to as the "mask of pregnancy."

C-Linea alba: This is a fibrous structure that runs along the midline of the abdomen, but it's not typically pigmented. Linea alba becomes more noticeable as linea nigra in pregnancy due to hormonal changes.

3. The part of fetus which occupies the lower pole of the uterus

A-Presentation

B. Position

C-Denominator

D- Lie

Correct Answer: A :PRESENTATION

Explanation: In obstetrics, the presentation refers to the part of the fetus that is closest to the birth canal and occupies the lower pole of the uterus. This can be:

Cephalic (head) presentation
Breech (buttocks or feet) presentation
Shoulder presentation

The presentation is an important factor in determining the course of labor and delivery.

The other options:

B-Position: This refers to the orientation of the presenting part (usually the head) in relation to the mother's pelvis. It's described in terms of the occiput (back of the head) or other landmarks.
C-Denominator: This is a reference point on the presenting part that helps determine the position of the fetus.
D-Lie: This refers to the relationship between the long axis of the fetus and the long axis of the uterus. It can be longitudinal, transverse, or oblique.

4. Low levels of maternal serum alpha fetoprotein levels are found in

A-Open neural tube defect

B-Down syndrome

C-Multiple pregnancy

D-Rh-isoimmunisation

The correct answer is: B-Down syndrome

Explanation: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) is a screening test used to detect certain fetal abnormalities during pregnancy. Low levels of MSAFP are associated with:

Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)
Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)

The other options:

A-Open neural tube defect: Elevated MSAFP levels are typically associated with open neural tube defects, such as spina bifida.
C-Multiple pregnancy: Elevated MSAFP levels are often seen in multiple pregnancies (twins, triplets, etc.).
D-Rh-isoimmunization: This condition occurs when an Rh-negative mother develops antibodies against Rh-positive blood, which can affect the fetus. MSAFP levels are not typically directly related to Rh-isoimmunization.

5. Passive movement of the head due to untwisting of the neck sustained during internal rotation is

A-Aversion

B-Extension

C-Restitution

D-Descent

Correct Answer: C-Restitution

Explanation: Restitution refers to the movement of the fetal head after it has completed internal rotation during labor. As the shoulders realign with the head, the head appears to rotate back (restitute) to its original position, untwisting the neck.

The other options:

A-Aversion: Not directly related to this specific movement.
B-Extension: Refers to the movement of the fetal head as it extends during delivery, typically after crowning.
D-Descent: Refers to the overall movement of the fetus downward through the birth canal during labor.
Restitution is an important part of the labor process, allowing the fetal head to realign with the shoulders and facilitating a smoother delivery.

6. For active management of third stage of labour the nurse should administer

A-Oxytocin 10 units within 1 minute

B-Oxytocin 10 units within 5 minutes

C-Oxytocin 5 units within 1 minute

D-Oxytocin 5 units within 5 minutes

Correct Answer: A-Oxytocin 10 units within 1 minute

Explanation: Active management of the third stage of labor (AMTSL) involves administering a uterotonic agent, such as oxytocin, immediately after delivery of the baby to help reduce postpartum hemorrhage risk.

The typical recommendation is:

Oxytocin 10 units IV (intravenous) or IM (intramuscular) within 1 minute of delivery

This helps stimulate uterine contractions, reducing bleeding and promoting placental delivery.

The other options may not be as effective in reducing postpartum hemorrhage risk due to the delay in administration or lower dose.

7. As a nurse, what is your first action if a mother complaints of increased body temperature for her newborn baby of a 2 days old. Body temperature by axilla is 100.6°F

A) Assess the feeding pattern

B) Administer paracetamol drops

C) Do tepid sponging

D) Inform the doctor

The correct answer is: A) Assess the feeding pattern.

Explanation: When a newborn has a fever, it's essential to consider the potential causes and assess the baby's overall condition. Since newborns can quickly become dehydrated, assessing the feeding pattern is crucial.

The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends evaluating the baby's hydration status and overall condition before considering treatment for fever. Assessing feeding patterns can provide valuable information about the baby's hydration status and help identify potential issues.

The other options might be considered later, but assessing the feeding pattern is a crucial first step.

Administering paracetamol drops or doing tepid sponging might be considered after further assessment and consultation with a healthcare provider.
It's also important to consider sepsis as a potential cause of fever in a newborn and follow hospital protocols for evaluation and treatment.

8. Most common cause of post partum hemorrhage ?

A. Bleeding disorders

B. Abruptio placenta

C. Placenta praevia

D. Atonic uterus

The correct answer is: D. Atonic uterus

Explanation: The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is uterine atony, where the uterus fails to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding.

Uterine atony can be caused by various factors, including

Prolonged labor
Overdistension of the uterus (e.g., multiple pregnancy)
Induction or augmentation of labor
Retained placental tissue

The other options are also potential causes of bleeding, but they are less common causes of PPH compared to uterine atony.

Bleeding disorders (A) can increase the risk of PPH, but they are relatively rare.
Abruptio placenta (B) is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterus, which can cause bleeding during pregnancy or labor.
Placenta previa (C) is a condition where the placenta covers the cervix, which can cause bleeding during pregnancy or labor.

9. A type of abnormality where umbilical cord is attached to membranes

A. Battledore placenta

B. Velamentous placenta

C. Circumvallate placenta

D. Placenta marginata

The correct answer is: B. Velamentous placenta

Explanation: Velamentous cord insertion is a condition where the umbilical cord inserts into the placental membranes (amnion) rather than directly into the placental mass. This can increase the risk of complications, such as:

Fetal growth restriction
Preterm birth
Fetal distress

The other options:

A. Battledore placenta: A type of placenta where the umbilical cord inserts at the edge of the placenta, rather than centrally.
C. Circumvallate placenta: A condition where the chorionic plate is smaller than the basal plate, resulting in a placenta with a folded edge.
D. Placenta marginata: Not a commonly used term in this context.
Velamentous cord insertion is an important condition to identify, as it can impact fetal well-being and pregnancy outcomes.

10. The nurse interpret the contraction stress test reading of persistent late deceleration of fetal heart rate with uterine contraction as.......................?

A. Positive

B. Negative

C. Suspicious

D. Unsatisfactory

The correct answer is: A. Positive

Explanation: A Contraction Stress Test (CST) assesses fetal well-being by monitoring fetal heart rate in response to uterine contractions. A positive CST result indicates:

Persistent late decelerations of the fetal heart rate with uterine contractions, suggesting fetal distress or compromise. This result may indicate that the fetus is not tolerating labor or is at risk for compromise.

The other options:

B. Negative: A negative CST result would show no late decelerations or a normal fetal heart rate response to contractions.
C. Suspicious: A suspicious result might show some concerning patterns, but not consistently enough to be classified as positive.
D. Unsatisfactory: An unsatisfactory result would indicate that the test couldn't be interpreted due to technical issues or inadequate contractions.
A positive CST result would typically prompt further evaluation or intervention to ensure fetal well-being.

11. The purpose of partograph include all the following except.............?

A. To monitor the progress of labour

B. To assess the fetal well being

C. To predict post partum hemorrhage

D. To identify the stages of labour

The correct answer is: C. To predict post partum hemorrhage

Explanation: A partograph is a graphical tool used to monitor labor progress and fetal well-being. Its primary purposes include:

Monitoring labor progress (A)
Assessing fetal well-being (B)
Identifying stages of labor (D)

While a partograph can help identify potential issues that might increase the risk of complications, predicting postpartum hemorrhage (C) is not its primary purpose.

Photographs are valuable tools for healthcare providers to track labor progress, make informed decisions, and intervene when necessary to ensure a safe delivery.

12. Radiological procedure to assess the anatomical patency and functional integrity of the fallopian tube by injecting dye

A. Tubal inflation test

B. Hysterosalpingography

C. Hysteroscopy

D. Sono hysterosalpingography

The correct answer is: B. Hysterosalpingography

Explanation: Hysterosalpingography (HSG) is a radiological procedure that assesses the anatomical patency and functional integrity of the fallopian tubes. During HSG:

A contrast dye is injected through the cervix into the uterus.
X-ray images are taken to visualize the dye as it flows through the uterus and fallopian tubes.

This procedure helps diagnose issues like:

Tubal blockages or damage
Adhesions
Abnormalities in the uterine cavity

The other options:

A. Tubal inflation test (Rubin's test): An older procedure that involves insufflating gas through the fallopian tubes to check for patency.
C. Hysteroscopy: A procedure that visually examines the inside of the uterus using a hysteroscope.
D. Sono hysterosalpingography (SHG or sonosalpingography): A procedure that uses ultrasound to visualize the fallopian tubes and uterus after injecting saline or contrast media.

13. The term used to Indicate irregular uterine bleeding between menstrual cycles

A.Metrorrhagia

B.Polymenorrhea

C.Menorrhagia

D.Menometrorrhagia

The correct answer is: A. Metrorrhagia

Explanation: Metrorrhagia refers to irregular uterine bleeding that occurs between menstrual cycles, at unpredictable times, and can vary in amount and duration. Metrorrhagia can have various causes, including hormonal imbalances, uterine abnormalities, or other underlying medical conditions.

The other options:

B. Polymenorrhea: Refers to frequent menstrual periods, with cycles shorter than 21 days
C. Menorrhagia: Refers to abnormally heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding
D. Menometrorrhagia: Refers to heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding that also occurs between menstrual cycles.

14. The ideal roller bandage application for body parts where the thickness varies, such as over the forearm

A. Simple spiral

B. Figure of eight

C. Reverse spiral

D. Divergent spica

The correct answer is: C. Reverse spiral

Explanation: A reverse spiral bandage is ideal for body parts with varying thickness, like the forearm. It involves:

Applying the bandage in a spiral manner
Reversing the direction by folding the bandage back on itself

This technique ensures a snug and comfortable fit, adapting to the changing circumference of the limb. The reverse spiral helps maintain even pressure and prevents the bandage from slipping or bunching up.

15. As per newer guidelines the compression ventilation ratio with two rescuer adult resuscitation is.........................?

A. 3:1

B. 5:1

C. 15:1

D.30:2

The correct answer is Option D 30:2

Explanation: According to the American Heart Association guidelines, the compression-ventilation ratio for adult resuscitation with two rescuers remains the same as with one rescuer, which is:

Compression-Ventilation Ratio for Adults, 30:2 for both one and two rescuers, meaning 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths.

This ratio applies to adults without an advanced airway. If an advanced airway is in place, chest compressions are continuous, and ventilations are provided at a rate of one breath every 6 seconds.

So, the correct answer is D. 30:2

16. Foot drop means.......................?

A.loss of dorsi flexion of foot

B. Loss of Plantar flexion of foot

C.inversion of foot

D. Eversion of foot

The correct answer is: A. Loss of dorsiflexion of foot (implied by "Foot drop")

Explanation: Foot drop is a condition characterized by weakness or paralysis of the muscles responsible for dorsiflexion (lifting the foot up toward the shin). This results in difficulty lifting the foot, causing it to drag along the ground while walking. Foot drop can significantly impact mobility and increase the risk of falls. Treatment often involves addressing the underlying cause and may include physical therapy or orthotic devices.

The common causes include:

Peroneal nerve damage
Neurological conditions
Muscle disorders

The other options:

B. Plantar flexion is the opposite movement, where the foot points downward.
C. Inversion refers to turning the foot inward.
D. Eversion refers to turning the foot outward.

17. The external rotation of hip in supine position is prevented by using a

A. Bed cradle

B. Bed board

C. Trochanter roll

D. Knee rest

The correct answer is: C. Trochanter roll

Explanation: A trochanter roll is a device or a rolled towel/sheet placed alongside the femur (thigh bone) to prevent external rotation of the hip in a supine position. This is often used in patients who are immobile or have conditions that cause muscle weakness or paralysis. Using a trochanter roll can help prevent complications associated with prolonged immobility, such as contractures or pressure sores. The trochanter roll helps maintain proper alignment and positioning of the hip joint.

The other options:

A. Bed cradle: A device that keeps bedding off the feet and legs, often used to prevent pressure sores or discomfort.
B. Bed board: A board placed under the mattress to provide extra support and stability.
D. Knee rest or pillow: Used to support the knees and maintain comfort, often used to reduce strain on the lower back.

19. In postural drainage supine in trendelenburg position is given to drain secretions from........?

A. Anterior segment of both lower lobe of lungs

B. Posterior segment of both lower lobe of lungs

C. Lateral segment of left lower lobe

D. Lateral segment of right lower lobe

The correct answer is: A. Anterior segment of both lower lobe of lungs

Explanation: In postural drainage, placing the patient in a supine Trendelenburg position (lying on their back with the body tilted so the head is lower than the feet) helps drain secretions from the anterior segments of the lower lobes of both lungs. Gravity assists in moving mucus toward the central airways where it can be coughed up or suctioned.

20.Which of the following is an effective method for reducing the risk of hypostatic pneumonia in a bedridden patient?

A. Antibiotics and cost effective method

B. Neutralisation

C. Frequent change of positions

D. Humidified oxygen

Correct Answer: C. Frequent change of positions

Explanation: Frequent change of positions, also known as turning or repositioning, is an effective method for reducing the risk of hypostatic pneumonia in bedridden patients. Regular turning and positioning can significantly reduce the risk of respiratory complications in bedridden patients. This helps:

Improve lung expansion and ventilation
Prevent pooling of secretions
Reduce the risk of respiratory complications

Hypostatic pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that can occur in immobile patients due to prolonged periods of inactivity and poor lung ventilation.

The other options:

A. Antibiotics may be used to treat pneumonia, but they don't prevent it.
D. Humidified oxygen can help loosen secretions, but frequent position changes are more effective in preventing hypostatic pneumonia.

21: When transporting a patient with intercostal drainage (ICD) tubes, the nurse should.......?

A. Clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system below the chest

B. Do not clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system on the trolley

C. Do not clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system below the chest

D. Clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system on the trolley

The correct answer is: C. Do not clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system below the chest

Explanation: When transporting a patient with an intercostal drainage (ICD) tube (chest tube), it's essential to:

Keep the drainage system below the level of the chest to prevent backflow of fluid or air into the pleural space.
Avoid clamping the chest tube unless absolutely necessary (e.g., changing the drainage system or assessing for air leaks), as clamping can lead to tension pneumothorax.

This approach ensures the continued drainage of fluid or air from the pleural space and minimizes the risk of complications during transport.

The other options:

A. Clamping the chest tube can increase the risk of complications.
B. Keeping the drainage system on the trolley at the same level as the chest may not be sufficient to prevent backflow.
D. Clamping the chest tube and keeping the drainage system on the trolley is not recommended.
Proper handling and management of chest tubes during transport are crucial to maintaining patient safety and preventing complications.

22: Which of the following is an example of isotonic intravenous solution?

A. Dextrose normal saline

B. 10% Dextrose

C. 0.45% NaCl

D. Ringer's Lactate

Correct Answer: D. Ringer's Lactate

Explanation: Ringer's Lactate is an example of an isotonic intravenous solution. Isotonic solutions have an osmolality similar to that of blood plasma, which means they neither cause cells to shrink nor swell.

Ringer's Lactate contains electrolytes like sodium, potassium, calcium, and lactate, making it suitable for fluid resuscitation and maintenance. Isotonic solutions are often used to expand intravascular volume, maintain fluid balance, or administer medications intravenously.

Other examples of isotonic solutions include: 0.9% Normal Saline

The other options:

A. Dextrose Normal Saline can be slightly hypertonic depending on the dextrose concentration.
B. 10% Dextrose is hypertonic.
C. 0.45% NaCl is hypotonic.

23: Calculate the drop per minute if a nurse wants to administer intra venous fluid at a rate of 60ml/hour using a micro drip set.

A. 15 drops/ ml

B. 20 drops/ml

C. 30 drops/ml

D. 60 drops/ml

Correct Answer: D. 60 drops/ml

Calculating Drops Per Minute

For a microdrip set, the drop factor is typically 60 drops/mL.

Given: Flow rate: 60 mL/hour, Drop factor: 60 drops/mL

To calculate drops per minute:

1. Convert the flow rate to mL/minute: 60 mL/hour ÷ 60 minutes/hour = 1 mL/minute

2. Multiply the mL/minute by the drop factor: 1 mL/minute × 60 drops/mL = 60 drops/minute

24: Z-track technique is used in:

A. Intra-venous injections

B. Intra muscular injection

C. Intra-arterial injection

D. Subcutaneous injection

Correct Answer: B. Intra muscular injection

Explanation: The Z-track technique is used when administering intramuscular (IM) injections to:

Prevent medication from leaking into the subcutaneous tissue
Reduce discomfort and irritation
Ensure the medication stays in the muscle tissue

This technique involves pulling the skin laterally before inserting the needle and releasing it after the injection. The Z-track method is particularly useful for medications that can cause irritation or staining, such as iron dextran or certain antibiotics.

25.Medication dissolved in clear fluid containing water and or alcohol is often sweetened

A. Extract

B. Elixir

C. syrup

D. Tincture

The correct answer is: B. Elixir

Explanation: An elixir is a clear, sweetened liquid medication containing water and/or alcohol. Elixirs are often flavored to improve palatability.

The other options:

A. Extract: A concentrated form of a substance, often in a powdered or liquid form.
C. Syrup: A thick, sweet liquid medication, often containing sugar or other sweeteners.
D. Tincture: A concentrated liquid extract of a substance, typically containing alcohol.
Elixirs are commonly used to administer medications orally, especially for pediatric or geriatric patients.

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